A risk manager self-insured a property risk for one year. The following year, even though no losses had occurred, the risk manager purchased property insurance to address the risk. What is the best explanation for the change in how the risk was handled, even though no losses had occurred?
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Business, 22.06.2019 04:50
Neveready flashlights inc. needs $317,000 to take a cash discount of 3/15, net 70. a banker will loan the money for 55 days at an interest cost of $13,200. a. what is the effective rate on the bank loan? (use a 360-day year. do not round intermediate calculations. input your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.) b. how much would it cost (in percentage terms) if the firm did not take the cash discount but paid the bill in 70 days instead of 15 days? (use a 360-day year. do not round intermediate calculations. input your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.) c. should the firm borrow the money to take the discount? no yes d. if the banker requires a 20 percent compensating balance, how much must the firm borrow to end up with the $317,000? e-1. what would be the effective interest rate in part d if the interest charge for 55 days were $7,200?
Answers: 3
Business, 22.06.2019 10:30
The advertisement demonstrates a popular way companies try to sell a product. what should consumers consider when it comes to the price of this product? it includes shipping and handling costs. it takes into account maintenance costs. it explains why this price is a good deal. it makes the full cost appears lower than it is.
Answers: 1
A risk manager self-insured a property risk for one year. The following year, even though no losses...
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