In a 2006 paper in the Journal of Labor Research, researchers discussed the correlational finding that the more alcohol people drink, the more money they earn (drinkers earn 10-14% more than non-drinkers). The title of the paper is "No Booze? You May Lose: Why Drinkers Earn More Money Than Nondrinkers." implying that drinking more leads to greater income. (note: this is a real correlation! In other words, there was nothing wrong with the way the researchers collected data, and there really is an overall correlation between drinking and income.) . Do you think that this conclusion, ie, that drinking more alcohol will cause a person to earn more income, is a reasonable one given the type of data the researchers have lice. correlational data), and why or why not? • Are there other ways to explain the finding, and if so, what are they