A 49-year-old female taking ibuprofen for increasing joint pain in her hands presents with increasing pain in her midsternal area. Gastroscopy reveals multiple, scattered, punctate hemorrhagic areas in her gastric mucosa. Biopsies from one of these hemorrhagic lesions reveal mucosal erosions with edema and hemorrhage. No mucosal ulceration is seen. What is the best diagnosis?

This question lacks options, options are: a. Active chronic gastritis b. Acute gastritis c. Autoimmune gastritis d. Chronic gastritis e. Peptic ulcer disease

The correct answer is b.

Explanation:

Acute gastritis is characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate that is predominantly neutrophilic and is usually transient in nature, it may be accompanied by mucosal hemorrhage, erosions and if the lesions are very severe, associated with bleeding. Gastric mucosa lesions are characterized by present edema and congestion confined to the epithelium. The main form is acute erosive or hemorrhagic gastritis, which is characterized by the presence of erosions in the stomach wall that affect only the mucosa.

it gave them more rights

can you explain it better