A homeowner considered having a new garage built and talked about the project with a contractor. In April, while the homeowner was on vacation, the contractor began building the garage according to the man's specifications. Work was complete by the end of May. In June, the homeowner returned from vacation and refused to pay for the garage. The contractor decided to file a mechanic's lien in July. Is the contractor entitled to a lien?

No, because there was no express or implied contract between the man and the contractor

Explanation:

For there to be a contract, there has to be a "good ahead order", signed by both party where they agree the cost of what it would take to carry out the job and whatever maybe in consideration, carrying out a contract without the other party given "go ahead" is not a contract and thereby the other party won't pay for whatever cost that was involved.

bro these r easy u may have to do them urself bro. lol jk the answer is two for nimber one, and for question number two sahel boi xd have fun get rekt m8

hello,

your answer is ready

i believe its either the first or third option but i'm leaning more towards the third option:

the first excerpt makes a logical appeal, while the second excerpt makes an emotional appeal.

your pal

~papaguy