In a June 2015 news clip, media commentator Bill O’Reilly said Americans needed to "get ready for the underclass." According to sociologists, what is wrong with using the term "underclass" to refer to people in poverty?

It's demeaning

Explanation:

Bill O'Reiley was suggesting on his show that there are specific classes that are already categorized as upper lower and middle in the UK and India. He based the formation of a formation of an underclass by polling Americans and realizing that 57% of them are doing badly financially and the state of the economy was most concerning to them. The most poignant of facts is that the education system which is the second highest investment in the world but the students are performing poorly on tests anyway.

Conspiracy theorists claim that the minority students are being treated differently by a group in advocate of education, PEG.  The minorities are made to believe that they are entitled and do not need to obey rules as the white children do.  For this reason, an "underclass" is being created since minority children in school are not being held to the higher standard as the white children are.

This of course, is only his opinion, and the reason for creating such an, "underclass" is multifaceted and not from a single cause. On the other hand, referring to a group of people as "underclass" is demeaning and derogatory to say the least.

depends on what they need

the consumer demand because the members have to be aware if people are going to buy what they want to sell in this case either energy drinks or a car wash.