In response to criticisms that the king of mordor has failed to gain the consent of his people, the king claims that he does in fact represent the consent of the people because without their king, society would crumble into chaos. which statement best represents a rebuttal that rousseau would use to counter the king’s argument?

It is impossible for the King of Mordor to have the consent of the people because the monarchy is not a freely formed government in which the people have a say in how it operates.

Explanation:

IN a monarch system, every laws and government actions that enacted in the country will be fully determined by the will of the sole leader (the king) , and the position of the leader will be passed through hereditary method.

King of Mordor's claim that stated he  represent the consent of the people is completely false. If that is the case, he should've provide a way for the people to either choose their own leader or the type of laws that should be passed through voting.

always include the steps and/or background required to get to the final answer. let’s other people understand and solve future problems on their own.

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