If unlike magnetic poles attract, how does a magnet attract an un-magnetized piece of metal such as a piece of iron? A
It does this via a process called magnetic induction which temporarily makes a magnet of the metal.

B
It can only do this if the piece of metal already is a magnet internally.

C
What actually happens is that the un-magnetized metal attracts the magnet rather than the other way around.

D
Only powerful electro-magnets, such as are found in wrecking yards, can attract unmagnetized metals.

A

Explanation:

The lets say the magnet is is facing the north and a piece of iron is near it. The iron will become magnetized since the protons will be repelled leaving only the electrons creating a magnetic field. Or in other words a temporary magnet is made, this is only as long a the actual magnet is close enough to the iron.

the velocity you are looking for is made up of two parts: horizontally velocity, vh, and its vertical velocity, vv. the actual velocity of the ball will be these two parts added together, and because velocity is a vector then they will need to be added vectorially.  

neglecting air resistance etc etc.,  

the horizontal velocity component will be constant (because there is no accelerating force in the horizontal direction.  

vh = 8 ms-1  

the vertical velocity component has an accelerating force: 'g'.  

using v = u +at where a = g = 9.81 ms-2.  

the vertical component of velocity, vv = 0 + gt = vv =9.81 x 2  

vv = 19.62 ms-1 . the zero appears because the virtical component of velocity at time t=0 is zero. remember, the ball was thrown horizontally.  

how fast it will be moving (it actual path (being a parabola )) will be the vector sum of these two.  

adding vectorally gives: -  

v = sqr root (8^2 + 19.62^2) = sqr root(64+384.9) = 21.18 or 21.2 ms-1

i think the answer is a, hope this is right, that would be my best guess.