Use the excerpts and your knowledge of social studies to answer the question. “39. No free man shall be arrested or imprisoned or . . . in any way victimized, neither will we attack him or send anyone to attack him, except by lawful judgment of his peers or by the law of the land.”
—Magna Carta
“That excessive bail ought not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishment. inflicted;
“That jurors ought to be duly impanelled [sworn in] . . . and jurors which pass upon men in trials for high treason ought to be freeholders.”
—English Bill of Rights

What did both the Magna Carta and the English Bill of Rights do?

guaranteed all men the right to vote

stated that physical attacks were considered “cruel and unusual punishment”

gave people accused of a crime the right to a trial by jury

declared that only a free man has the right to protest his arrest

                                          EXPLANATIONS

"Guaranteed all men the right to vote" This doesn't make sense, because the Magna Carta and English Bill of Rights talked nothing about the rights of men to vote.

"Stated that physical attack were considered "cruel and unusual punishment" This isn't correct either, because the English Bill of Rights doesn't say anything about physical attack. It only says cruel and unusual punishment.

"Gave people accused of a crime the right to a trial by jury" This answer is correct, because in the Magna Carta, it says, "except by lawful judgment of his peers or by the law of the land.” In simpler terms, it's basically saying that no man should be arrested, unless the right by the accused person asks for a trial (I believe). The English Bill of Rights

"Declared that only a free man has the right to protest his arrest." This one would've been good, but The English Bill of Rights doesn't talk about that only a free man has the right to protest his arrest. Only the Magna Carta.

At first, I wasn't sure if it was the last one or the third one, so I hope this is right/helpful ;w;

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explanation:

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