The purpose of this problem is to give you a feel for the magnitude of reynolds number appropriate to real airplanes in actual flight. a. consider a dc-3 s. the wing root chord length (distance from the front to the back of the wing where the wing joins the fuselage) is 14.25 ft. consider the dc-3 flying at 200 miles per hour at sea level. calculate the reynolds number for the flow over the wing root chord. (this is an important number, because as we will see later, it governs the skin-friction drag over that portion of the wing.)b. consider a f-22. the chord length where the wing joins the center body is 21.5 ft. consider the airplane making a high-speed pass at a velocity of 1320 ft/s at sea level (mach 1.2). calculate the reynolds number at the wing root.

russian is not my first language, so i'm afraid i can't write out an answer in russian, but hopefully you can find a way to do so. here's my best translation of the problem: you're given a plot of a particle's position in one-dimensional space over time, and you're asked to find either the total distance traveled by the particle after 6 seconds had elapsed, or the total displacement of the particle after 6 seconds.

if you want the total distance traveled, you would first need to determine the particle's velocity as a function of time, then integrate that over the 6-second interval. we know the position function is quadratic with roots at 0 and 6, so we have

where is unknown. because the position is parabolic, there is symmetry about the midpoint at , and we know that

so that the position function is

which means the velocity is

then the total distance traveled is

so the total distance traveled is 20 m.

on the other hand, if you want to find displacement: the particle starts at and ends at , so its displacement is 0.

305.7

explanation:

density =m/v

density =917/3.00

density = 305.

approximately = 305.7

in four significant figures

magnets not strong enough

explanation: