Physics, 03.07.2019 23:20 manasangreddy2921
Why can a magnetic monopole not exist, assuming maxwell's equations are currently correct and complete? a : if enclosed by a surface, it would produce a net flux through the surface.
b : it would violate faraday's law.
c : it would require that a magnetic field exist in the presence of an electric field.
d : it would not produce any magnetic flux.
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If anyone who can me with this hw? i would really appreciate it
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