use laplace transform to solve the initial value problem y 00 2y 0 y = δ(t − 2); y(0) = 0, y0 (0) = 0

chase is right because he already been to the swings and he know how far it will be to get there

step-by-step explanation:

(a) {a₁, a₁r, a₁r², … a₁rⁿ⁻¹, …}

(b) $59 398

step-by-step explanation:

(a) the annual sequence of profits

aₙ = a₁rⁿ⁻¹

the model for the sequence of profits is {a₁, a₁r, a₁r², … a₁rⁿ⁻¹, …} .

(b) profit after 15 yr

  a₁ = $ 30 000

  r = 1.05

a₁₅ = 30 000 × 1.05¹⁴

a₁₅ = 30 000 × 1.979 93

a₁₅ = $59 398

the profit in year 15 will be $59 398.