Please help! I don’t get it much

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  ∠BDC = 46°

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle BDC intercepts arc BC, identified as having a measure of 92°. The angle's vertex, point D, is on the circle, so the angle is called an "inscribed angle." The measure of an inscribed angle is half the measure of the arc it intercepts.

  ∠BDC = (1/2)arc BC = 1/2(92°)

  ∠BDC = 46°

so firstly, we need to isolate the y variables to be able to solve these inequalities. firstly, add 0.5x on both sides of the first inequality and subtract 1.5x on both sides of the second inequality:

now since the slope is positive for the first inequality, this means that the line going upwards belongs to the first inequality, and the line going downwards belongs to the second inequality.

next, since y ≥ in the first inequality, this means that the shaded region will be above the first inequality's line, thus shading regions a and b.

next, since y ≤ in the second inequality, this means that the shaded region is going to be below this line, thus shading regions a and c.

since both lines shade region a, this means that region a is the solution.

step-by-step explanation:

mark brainliest!

i think its a and d

step-by-step explanation: