HELP FAST THIS IS FOR A MAP TEST

answer: the answer is one

step-by-step explanation:

pemdas, in this situation there is no parenthesis or exponents so you go to multiplication, 1x1=1, then division 1/1= 1 then addition 1+1=2 then subtraction 2-1=1

step-by-step explanation:

(a) {a₁, a₁r, a₁r², … a₁rⁿ⁻¹, …}

(b) $59 398

step-by-step explanation:

(a) the annual sequence of profits

aₙ = a₁rⁿ⁻¹

the model for the sequence of profits is {a₁, a₁r, a₁r², … a₁rⁿ⁻¹, …} .

(b) profit after 15 yr

  a₁ = $ 30 000

  r = 1.05

a₁₅ = 30 000 × 1.05¹⁴

a₁₅ = 30 000 × 1.979 93

a₁₅ = $59 398

the profit in year 15 will be $59 398.

what steps are you having us

step-by-step explanation: