Two functions f(x) and f(x+ 1) are continuous on segment [0; 2] and f(0) = f(2). Prove that the equation f(x) - f(x + 1) = 0 has the solution in the segment [0; 1]​

1     sepan

2     encuentren

3     tenga

4     hable

5   parezca

6   llegue

x = ±sqrt(10)

step-by-step explanation:

5 - 2x² = -15

subtract 5 from each side

5-5 - 2x² = -15-5

-2x^2   = -20

divide by -2 on each side

-2x^2   /-2= -20/-2

x^2 =10

take the square root on each side

sqrt(x^2 )=±sqrt(10)

x = ±sqrt(10)

check:

5 - 2x² = -15

+sqrt(10)

5 - 2(sqrt(10))² = -15

5 -2(10) = -15

5 -20 = -15

-15 = -15

-sqrt(10)

5 - 2(-sqrt(10))² = -15

5 -2(10) = -15

5 -20 = -15

-15 = -15

answer: b. f(x) = (x + 2)^3 (x^2 - 7x + 3)^4

step-by-step explanation:

polynomials always have as many roots as their order. this is a 4th order polynomial- hence 4 roots!

complex roots of polynomials always come in pairs. the quadratic equation has the "+/-" in that will alwaysgenerate m+ni amd m-ni, so 7-2i must be a root of this polynomial equation.

the order of the numerator and denominator are both 2. so the horizontal asymptote is y=a2/b2 =7

verticle asymptotes are the forbidden x-values. f(x) becomes undefined at x=-3 because this value will cause a zero denominator.

a graph of r(x) will have vertical asymptotes at ±1 because these values will make the denominator zero. so the domain of the function cannot include ±1.

you 're wlecome! : )

cretdit to source

no association

step-by-step explanation:

if you have eyes and you can use them efficiently you can see that it just looks like random dots like do a line of best fit and like they're so spread out it's such a weak association you might as well consider it nonexistent