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Mathematics, 03.05.2021 08:10 Gimagg5549

Do I just state that by the Intermediate value theorem, there must exist c= [a, b] such that f(c) = 1/(b-a) from integral a to b (f)(dx)? Or is there some calculations I need to show like a min or max something?


Do I just state that by the Intermediate value theorem, there must exist c= [a,b] such that f(c) =

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