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Mathematics, 05.10.2019 14:00 tcarston1728

Joe gave the following argument: since lim x→0 0 = 0,
(a) and since 0 = βˆ’1 x + 1 x ,
(b) we know that lim xβ†’0 ( βˆ’1 x + 1 x ) = 0.
(c) but then, since lim xβ†’0 ( βˆ’1 x + 1 x ) = lim xβ†’0 ( βˆ’1 x ) + lim xβ†’0 ( 1 x ),
(d) we can say that lim xβ†’0 ( βˆ’1 x ) + lim xβ†’0 ( 1 x ) = 0, which means that lim xβ†’0 ( βˆ’1 x ) = βˆ’ lim xβ†’0 ( 1 x ).
(e) no error
in which line, if any, has joe made an error?

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Joe gave the following argument: since lim x→0 0 = 0,
(a) and since 0 = βˆ’1 x + 1 x ,
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