Acontinuous function y=f(x) is known to be negative at x=0 and positive at x=1. why does the equation f(x)=0 have at least one solution between x=0 and x=1?

Givens

It's known that the function is negative at and positive at .

To answer this question, we need to use the Intermediate Value Theorem, which states:

Therefore, the function hast a least one solution between and because the function is continuous in the closed interval [0,1], and based on the intermediate value theorem, if there exist a value inside this interval, then there's at least one solution there.

e) none of the above because the measure of angle cba is 101°

17.08

correct me if i am wrong.