Let A=R–{3}, B=R–{1}. Let f:A→B be defined by f(x)=x-2/x-3, xєA, show that f is bijective.

answer: 4

step-by-step explanation:

$8

step-by-step explanation:

it is pretty much backwards.

you take the 4x2 multiply that, and that is = $8

aloha~! my name is zalgo and i am here to you out on this amazing day. to answer your question, yes, nonzero numbers can have a greatest common factor and that would be 1. still don't get it? let me considering every number is divisible by 1 and hence every number has 1 as a factor of theirs. so, if 2 nonzero numbers didn't share any gcf (greatest common factor), they would still have a factor in common and that would be 1.

i hope that this ! : p

"stay and stay proud! " - zalgo

(by the way, do you mind marking me as brainliest? i'd greatly appreciate it! mahalo! x3)

2425

step-by-step explanation: