High School Pam finds the inverse of some linear functions. She notices a pattern when doing so. She makes the following claim:For any linear function y = cx + d such that y is a function of x, c#0, and d#0, its inverse function can be expressed
as y = x-d.
Part A
Determine a linear function in the form y = cx + d that supports Pam's claim. Enter your answer in the first
response box.
Part B
Determine a linear function in the form y = cx + d that refutes Pam's claim. Enter your answer in the second
response box.

C(X,Y)(a,b)=1−C(s(X),t(Y))(a,1−b).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's introduce the cumulative distribution of (X,Y), X and Y :

F(X,Y)(x,y)=P(X≤x,Y≤y)

   FX(x)=P(X≤x)

   FY(y)=P(Y≤y).

Likewise for (s(X),t(Y)), s(X) and t(Y) :

F(s(X),t(Y))(u,v)=P(s(X)≤u

   t(Y)≤v)

   Fs(X)(u)=P(s(X)≤u)

   Ft(Y)(v)=P(t(Y)≤v).

Now, First establish the relationship between F(X,Y) and F(s(X),t(Y)) :

F(X,Y)(x,y)=P(X≤x,Y≤y)=P(s(X)≤s(x),t(Y)≥t(y))

The last step is obtained by applying the functions s and t since s preserves order and t reverses it.

This can be further transformed into

F(X,Y)(x,y)=1−P(s(X)≤s(x),t(Y)≤t(y))=1−F(s(X),t(Y))(s(x),t(y))

Since our random variables are continuous, we assume that the difference between t(Y)≤t(y) and t(Y)<t(y)) is just a set of zero measure.

Now, to transform this into a statement about copulas, note that

C(X,Y)(a,b)=F(X,Y)(F−1X(a), F−1Y(b))

Thus, plugging x=F−1X(a) and y=F−1Y(b) into our previous formula,

we get

F(X,Y)(F−1X(a),F−1Y(b))=1−F(s(X),t(Y))(s(F−1X(a)),t(F−1Y(b)))

The left hand side is the copula C(X,Y), the right hand side still needs some work.

Note that

Fs(X)(s(F−1X(a)))=P(s(X)≤s(F−1X(a)))=P(X≤F−1X(a))=FX(F−1X(a))=a

and likewise

Ft(Y)(s(F−1Y(b)))=P(t(Y)≤t(F−1Y(b)))=P(Y≥F−1Y(b))=1−FY(F−1Y(b))=1−b

Combining all results we obtain for the relationship between the copulas

C(X,Y)(a,b)=1−C(s(X),t(Y))(a,1−b).

congruent segments

step-by-step explanation: