The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the The function f1(x) has a range including all values
greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the
does also.

The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the -x-intercept of f inverse-

The function f^1 (x) has a range including all values greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the -domain of f- does also

Step-by-step explanation:

answer: 0,6

step-by-step explanation:

this would make it the y intercept.