Mathematics, 10.03.2021 16:50 jasminellenaee

In the United States, voters who are neither Democrat nor Republican are called Independent. It is believed that 11% of voters are Independent. A survey asked 33 people to identify themselves as Democrat, Republican, or Independent. A. What is the probability that none of the people are Independent? Probability = B. What is the probability that fewer than 6 are Independent? Probability = C. What is the probability that more than 2 people are Independent? Probability =

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Answer from: Leonardo8366

a) 0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

b) 0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

c) 0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each people, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are independent, or they are not. For each person asked, the probability of them being Independent voters is the same. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

It is believed that 11% of voters are Independent.

This means that p = 0.11

A survey asked 33 people to identify themselves as Democrat, Republican, or Independent.

This means that n = 33

A. What is the probability that none of the people are Independent?

This is P(X = 0). So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

B. What is the probability that fewer than 6 are Independent?

This is

P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X = 2) = C_{33,2}.(0.11)^{2}.(0.89)^{31} = 0.1724$

$P(X = 3) = C_{33,3}.(0.11)^{3}.(0.89)^{30} = 0.2202$

$P(X = 4) = C_{33,4}.(0.11)^{4}.(0.89)^{29} = 0.2041$

$P(X = 5) = C_{33,5}.(0.11)^{5}.(0.89)^{28} = 0.1463$

P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 + 0.1724 + 0.2202 + 0.2041 + 0.1463 = 0.8516

0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

C. What is the probability that more than 2 people are Independent?

This is:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

P(X < 2) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 = 0.1086

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.1086 = 0.8914$

0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

Answer from: Quest

i can you, i love poetry

Answer from: Quest

x=-2

infinite number of lines, so there is an infinite number of equations.

step-by-step explanation:

there are an infinite number of line that passes through the point (-2,5)

x=-2 is one line that passes through the point

y = 5 is another line that passes through the point

(these two lines are perpendicular to each other).

since the number of numbers are infinite and the slope is the ratio of two numbers,(change in y over change in x) we can have an infinite number of slopes. our only condition is that it passes through the point (-2,5)

A. write an equation of a line that passes through (-2, 5). b. how many different equations could y

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In the United States, voters who are neither Democrat nor Republican are called Independent. It is b...