a bag contains 6 white marbles and 4 black marbles. a marble is drawn without replacing the first one. what is the probability of drawing a white marble on the first draw, followed by a white marble on the second?

30/90 or 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because we know that 6+4=10. So we know the odds of drawing a white marble first is 6/10. And if we draw one without replacing it. This makes the second time 5/9 for white and 4/9 for black. We can then multiply 6/10 by 5/9 and get 30/90 which is equal to 1/3.

Hope this helps!

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

P=6/10 ×5/9=30/90=1/3

unless if u could do my questions, if not i wouldn't want to