A student who did very well in Algebra 1 looked at this trigonometry problem, and said "Wait a minute, Tangent is the same as slope!!" Why would she says this? How is tangent the same as slope?

guess at question:

a vertical line intersects the graph of g(x,y) = 0 at two points. what conclusion follows about the function f(x) implicitly defined by g(x,f(x)) = 0?

the domain of f(x) cannot include the x coordinate of any such vertical line.

informally, f(x) is not a function, and

g(x,y)=0 cannot be solved for y uniquely.

the relation r = {(x,y) such that g(x,y) = 0} is a function if

for all (a,b) ∊ r and (c,d) ∊ r, a=c implies b=d.

step-by-step explanation:

on the middle line

step-by-step explanation:

1/5=50

the answer on ed. is:

c. "the graph of f(x) has exactly two x-intercepts."

hope i could someone! : )