I need help if you can that would be great thank you

Simplifying the expression so, there is only one power of each base we get

Option D is correct answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to simply the expression so, there is only one power of each base.

Solving:

We can write it as:

Now using exponent rule:

Now using the exponent rule: the bases should be same

So, simplifying the expression so, there is only one power of each base we get

Option D is correct answer.

e) none of the above because the measure of angle cba is 101°

you can first factor out the n to get n(1+5). we know that 1+5 is 6, so we just have 6n.