John states that the products of two real numbers is a real number. Extending this to imaginary numbers. John states that the product of two imaginary numbers must be imaginary. Is his statement correct? Explain

No, this is a wrong statement.

Step-by-step explanation:

In the context, it is given that John states that the product of two the real numbers provides a number that is real. This is always true, the product is always a real number of two real number.

But the product of any two imaginary numbers is not a imaginary number, the product is always a real number.

So John provides a wrong statement in case of product of any two imaginary numbers.

no association

step-by-step explanation:

if you have eyes and you can use them efficiently you can see that it just looks like random dots like do a line of best fit and like they're so spread out it's such a weak association you might as well consider it nonexistent

the first option is the answer.