Mathematics, 14.11.2020 07:20 blackops3318
Given g(x) = ln x, is it true that if u>0 and v>0 g(u) = 2g(v), then u=v?
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Given g(x) = ln x, is it true that if u>0 and v>0 g(u) = 2g(v), then u=v?
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