It is given that ∠B ≅ ∠C. Assume AB and AC are not congruent. If AB > AC, then m∠C > m∠B by . If AC > AB, then m∠B > m∠C for the same reason. However, using the given statement and the definition of congruency, we know that m∠B = m∠C. Therefore, AB = AC and AB ≅ AC. What is the missing reason in the proof? converse of the triangle parts relationship theorem substitution definition of congruency converse of the isosceles triangle theorem

answer: about 22.67

step-by-step explanation:

80° is the measure of gh

step-by-step explanation:

circle f is congruent to circle j

we have two circle with center f and j.

both circles are congruent. the radius of the circle would be equal.

see the attachment for the circle.

we are given ∠efd ≅ ∠gjh

therefore, arc (ed) = arc (gh)     (∴ circle f is congruent to circle j)

but ∠dfe=80°=arc (ed)

therefore, arc (gh) = 80°

thus, 80° is the measure of gh

13. jbhgfsfyfvhvbjko

t= 1/3.

hope this .

step-by-step explanation: