A Company Limited issued 5,000 shares of Rs. 100 each payable as under: [HSEB 2064]
On application
Rs. 40
On allotment
Rs. 30
On first and final call
Rs. 30
Applications were received for 8,000 shares, allotment were made on the following basis:
To applicants for 3,000 shares
Full
To applicants for 4,000 shares
.2,000 shares
To applicants for 1,000 shares
.Nil
All excess amount paid on application is to be adjusted against amount due on allotment and subsequent calls. The
shares were fully called and paid up except one shareholder to whom 100 shares were allotted failed to pay on first and
final calls and his shares were forfeited.
Required: Journal entries for (a) Allotment (b) First and final call and (c) Forfeiture

no, because the sides are not congruent

huh? im pretty sure it is in 199

step-by-step explanation:

answer:

payment just for service  

→

$

87.12

payment for service including tax

→

$

94.09

explanation:

service only with 20% tip  

→

$

72.6

(

1

+

20

100

)

=

$

87.12

in the opening of the question the word 'service' is associated only with the pretax value.

the closing part of the question asks: how much did she pay for the  

service

−−−−−−  

so technically the answer is  

→

$

72.6

(

1

+

20

100

)

=

$

87.12

however, the intention of the question provider may have been that your answer is to be  

$

87.12

(

1

+

8

100

)

=

$

94.09

to 2 decimal places.

'

payment just for service  

→

$

87.12

payment for service including tax

→

$

94.09

tony b

mar 21, 2017

answer:

trying to explain it another way

explanation:

service charge  

.

→

$

72.60

20% tip  

20

100

×

$

72.60

=

$

14.52

−−−−−−  

←

add

$

87.12

tax  

8

100

×

$

87.12

=

$

6.97

−−−−−  

←

add

$

94.09

related questions

ok

step-by-step explanation: