For a one-to-one function, y = f(x), then x = f-1(y). True or false. Explain your answer.

True

Step-by-step explanation:

For one-to-one function, we have for all x₁ and x₂, where x₁ ≠ x₂, then, f(x₁) ≠ f(x₂)

Which gives;

f

Where f(x₁) = y₁, the result of the inverse of the f⁻¹(y₁) = x₁

By definition the inverse of a one-to-one function, f⁻¹ is a distinctive function whose domain is given by f⁻¹(f⁻¹(x)) = x for the values of x in f

Therefore, for one-to-one functions, f⁻¹(f⁻¹(x₁)) = x₁

Where f⁻¹(x₁) = y₁, is the inverse or reverse of a function f(x₁), therefore, we have;

f⁻¹(y₁) = x₁

Which proves the statement that y = f(x) then x= f⁻¹(y).

step-by-step explanation:

first, eliminate the parenthesis:

3

x

+

2

−

4

x

second, group like terms:

3

x

−

4

x

+

2

third, combine like terms:

(

3

−

4

)

x

+

2

→

−

1

x

+

2

→

−

x

+

2

step-by-step explanation:

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