Assume that you have a sample of n 1 equals 4, with the sample mean Upper X overbar 1 equals 43, and a sample standard deviation of Upper S 1 equals 7, and you have an independent sample of n 2 equals 8 from another population with a sample mean of Upper X overbar 2 equals 32 and the sample standard deviation Upper S 2 equals 8. Assuming the population variances are equal, at the 0.01 level of significance, is there evidence that mu 1 greater than mu 2?