Mathematics, 05.05.2020 01:21 loredobrooke5245
How is domain of the function f(x) = tan x restricted so that its inverse function exists?
Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements.
The domain of f(x) = tan x is restricted to so that the inverse of the function exists.
This means that all functional values of f(x) = tan^(−1) x are on the interval .
(-π/2, π/2)
[-π/2, π/2]
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(0,2Ï€)
[0,2Ï€]
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How is domain of the function f(x) = tan x restricted so that its inverse function exists?
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