Calculate the total number of holes in the valence band using a similar approach to the one used in class for conduction electrons. Be careful with your assumptions for the zero value of energy. (a) First prove that the probability of occupation of a hole is F(Eh) ≈ exp(−(EF − Eh)/kT) (b) Show that the total number of holes is given by h = 4.84x1015 ( mh ∗ mo ) 3 2 T 3 2 exp [− EG 2kT] Be sure the integral is from −[infinity] to Ev.

38.5

step-by-step explanation:

lets say, first number = r

second number = 3r+7

total = 49

(r)+(3r+7)= 49

4r+7 = 49

4r = 42

r = 42/4

r= 10.5

3r+7 = 3(10.5)+7 = 38.5

hope this

the graph in the attached figure

step-by-step explanation:

we have

using a graphing tool

the graph in the attached figure

the roots are ( x-intercepts) x=-0.5,x=1,x=3

the y-intercept is the point (0,3)

step-by-step explanation:

2, 2, 2 or -4, 20, 29

step-by-step explanation:

there is two ways you can do it.