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Mathematics, 05.05.2020 20:19 adswadsaasdads

Using the First Corollary to the Inscribed Angle Theorem (edge)

Is the measure of <1 equal to the measure of <2? Why?

yes, because they intercept the same arc

no, because the sides of 22 are longer

no, because they intercept the circle at different
points
106°


Using the First Corollary to the Inscribed Angle Theorem (edge)  Is the measure of <1 equal to th

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Using the First Corollary to the Inscribed Angle Theorem (edge)

Is the measure of <1...
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