Absolute value of the division of two integers is always obtained by dividing the absolute values of the given integers. Do you agree? Why? Explain with suitable examples

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What's the denominator

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< xcy ≅ < xby

step-by-step explanation:

in δcax and δbax,

ac ≅ ab (given)< cax ≅ < bax   (given)ax ≅ ax (common side)

so, δcax ≅ δbax (side-angle-side or sas)

since δcax ≅ δbax, we can conclude < acx ≅ < abx

in δacy and δaby,

ac ≅ ab (given)< cay ≅ < bay (since < cax ≅ < bax is given and xy is the extension of line ax)ay ≅ ay (common side)

so, δacy ≅ δaby (side-angle-side or sas)

since δacy ≅ δaby, we can conclude < acy ≅ < aby

now,

< acy ≅ < aby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < abx + < xby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < acx + < xby   (since < acx ≅ < abx already proved above)

subtracting < acx from both sides, we get

< acx + < xcy -< acx ≅ < acx + < xby -< acx

cancelling out < acx and -< acx from both sides, we get

< xcy ≅ < xby (proved)