subject
Mathematics, 15.04.2020 00:15 lostcharmedone01

Let f be a function defined for t ≥ 0. Then the integral ℒ{f(t)} = [infinity] e−t f(t) dt 0 is said to be the Laplace transform of f, provided that the integral converges. to find ℒ{f(t)}. (Write your answer as a function of s.) f(t) = t sin(t)

ansver
Answers: 1

Another question on Mathematics

question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 18:50
Astudent draws two parabolas on graph paper. both parabolas cross the x-axis at (-4, 0) and (6,0). the y-intercept of thefirst parabola is (0, –12). the y-intercept of the second parabola is (0-24). what is the positive difference between the avalues for the two functions that describe the parabolas? write your answer as a decimal rounded to the nearest tenth.
Answers: 2
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 23:30
Johnny rode his bike to a friends house 4 blocks down the street in his neighborhood. he immediately rode back home once he realized his friend was unable to play. what was his displacement for the total bike ride trip? what could you use as a reference point ? show the steps to solve this problem.
Answers: 3
question
Mathematics, 22.06.2019 00:50
Consider the enlargement of the pentagon. what is the value of x, rounded to the nearest tenth? 2.1 centimeters 3.3 centimeters 7.0 centimeters 15.0 centimeters
Answers: 3
question
Mathematics, 22.06.2019 04:10
Ofis to ? o y=-3x-4o y=-3x+(-4)o y=-4 + 3xoy=-4-3x
Answers: 1
You know the right answer?
Let f be a function defined for t ≥ 0. Then the integral ℒ{f(t)} = [infinity] e−t f(t) dt 0 is said...
Questions
question
English, 17.11.2020 23:10
question
Mathematics, 17.11.2020 23:10
question
Mathematics, 17.11.2020 23:10
question
Mathematics, 17.11.2020 23:10
Questions on the website: 13722363