Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?

A) Multiplicative inverses do not have the same sign.

B) Multiplicative inverses must multiply to equal 0, so they need the same sign.

C) Multiplicative inverses must multiply to equal 1, so they need the same sign.

D) Multiplicative inverses must multiply to equal -1, so they need the same sign.

100 points, hi, i’m not sure how to get the equation from the graph and table.

Nicolo paganini's numbers 1184 and 1210 are amicable. the proper divisors of 1184 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 37, 74, 148, 296, and 592. the proper divisors of 1210 are 1, 2, 5, 10, 11, 22, 55, 110, 121, 242, and 605. use the definition of amicable (friendly) numbers to show that they are indeed amicable. which of the folowing statement uses the definition of amicable numbers to show that 1184 and 1210 are indeed amicable? o a. o b. ° c. the sum of proper divisors of 1184 is 1210 and the sum of proper divisors of 1210 is 1184 the sum of proper divisors of 1184 is greater than 1210 and the sum of proper divisors of 1210 is greater than 1184 the sum of proper divisors of 1184 is less than 1210 and the sum of proper divisors of 1210 is less than 1184

Can someone me on this math worksheet about finding the given variable for these angles, and whether the triangles are similar. i really need these answers i’m so confused: ( !