Question 5: prove that it’s =0

Proof in explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to attempt this by squeeze theorem.

We know that is a variable number between -1 and 1 (inclusive).

This means that .

for all value . So if we multiply all sides of our inequality by this, it will not effect the direction of the inequalities.

By squeeze theorem, if  

and , then we can also conclude that .

So we can actually evaluate the "if" limits pretty easily since both are continuous  and exist at .

.

We can finally conclude that by squeeze theorem.

Some people call this sandwich theorem.

in problems involving proportions, we can use cross products to test whether two ratios are equal and form a proportion. to find the cross products of a proportion, we multiply the outer terms, called the extremes, and the middle terms, called the means.

hope it