For which pairs of functions is it^^^

Explanation:

Anything of the form will solve to . When we swap x and y for the second equation, we end up with again. This shows is its own inverse.

In this case, k = 2

If we use function composition, then we get,

Which is an alternative way to show that f(x) is an inverse of g(x). You should find that as well through basically the same steps as shown above.

it is ok do not worry about it my dude. have a good one