If you do not have equal coefficients for both variables, can you
still use the elimination method?

Which of the following is most likely the next step in the series? a3z, b6y, c9x, d12w, е15v, f18u

Which one ? is the answer and how to find this answer

Prove (a) cosh2(x) − sinh2(x) = 1 and (b) 1 − tanh 2(x) = sech 2(x). solution (a) cosh2(x) − sinh2(x) = ex + e−x 2 2 − 2 = e2x + 2 + e−2x 4 − = 4 = . (b) we start with the identity proved in part (a): cosh2(x) − sinh2(x) = 1. if we divide both sides by cosh2(x), we get 1 − sinh2(x) cosh2(x) = 1 or 1 − tanh 2(x) = .