Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

 1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%

so.. yes. It is equivalent.

No, they are not equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide

40/1000=0.04

To make this a percentage multiply it by 100

Then you get 4%

4% and 40% are not the same

intensity of the vector is v= √37 ≈ 6.08 units and make angle ∡α ≈ 9.46° with east direction

step-by-step explanation:

required vector is consists of the two componentsvx= 2+4=6 units   and vy= 1 unit and vx ⊥ vywe will use pythagorian theorem to find intensity of the vector vv∧2 = vx∧2 + vy∧2 => v = √vx∧2 + vy∧2 = √6∧2 + 1∧2 = √36+1 = √37 ≈ 6.08 unitsthe angle ∡α between vector and east direction we wil find with tanαtanα = 1/6 => α = arc tanα = arc 1/6 => α ≈ 9.46°

hope this