subject
Mathematics, 18.10.2019 20:30 rell5911

Then, due to convergence properties for the power-series of = βˆ‘[infinity] =0 , we have, = βˆ‘] [infinity] =0 = βˆ‘[infinity] =0 = 1 + βˆ‘ 1[infinity] =1 . this is very useful give part (c) of the problem 1, above. problem: use the power series for = = 2 2 to determine the values of = .

ansver
Answers: 2

Another question on Mathematics

question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 14:30
In trapezoid efgh, m∠hef=(4x2+16)∘ and m∠gfe=(5x2+12)∘. find the value of x so that efgh is isosceles.
Answers: 1
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 20:10
Right triangle xyz has a right angle at vertex y and a hypotenuse that measures 24 cm. angle zxy measures 70ΒΊ. what is the length of line segment xy? round to the nearest tenth. 8.2 cm 8.7 cm 22.6 m 25.5 cm
Answers: 1
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 21:30
The owner of the plant nursery where you were tells you to fill 350 ml bottles from a 30 l from a fertilizer
Answers: 1
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 23:20
Write the equations in logarithmic form 10^3=1,000
Answers: 1
You know the right answer?
Then, due to convergence properties for the power-series of = βˆ‘[infinity] =0 , we have, = βˆ‘] [inf...
Questions
question
Chemistry, 26.08.2020 01:01
question
Computers and Technology, 26.08.2020 01:01
question
Mathematics, 26.08.2020 01:01
Questions on the website: 13722367