Atarot hand consists of cards drawn at random from the deck. what is the probability that a tarot hand has a void, meaning that at least one suit is not present among the cards? once you've computed the answer in terms of binomial coefficients, use a calculator or computer to determine the answer to the nearest tenth of a percent, and enter that as your answer.

answer: what are the answer choices?

step-by-step explanation:

60.9774

step-by-step explanation:

because when you add 47.6 plus 7.32 equals 54.92

and when you add .0574 + 6= 6.0574

and when you add 54.92 and 6.0574 you get the answer of 60.9774.

plzz mark brainlest last one got deleted. cause i didn't explain it but i did but i understand what the mod meant

answer: it actually depends on which is the independent variable and which is the dependent variable. let us say we're looking at a linear equation. y=2x+3. we theoretically could switch the equation to be x=(y-3)/2 and it would be the same line. so either a causes b or it can be that b causes a. so technically the answer is false

step-by-step explanation: