Which statement is correct about y = cos^–1 x?

A) If the domain of y=cos(x) is restricted to [0, π], y=cos^-1(x) is a function.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the inverse function to be a function, the original must pass the horizontal line test: a horizontal line must intersect the function in only one place.

As you can see from the attached graph, restricting the cosine function to the domain [0, π] allows it to pass the horizontal line test, so its inverse will be a function.

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Restricting the domain to [-π/2, π/2] does not limit cos(x) to something that will pass the horizontal line test.

62.5 paisa

step-by-step explanation:

4000*70 = 280000

280000-(2000*90) = 100000

4000-2400 = 1600

100000/1600 = 62.5

( give brainliest)

answer: 88

step-by-step explanation: