The inverse of f(x)= x2 is also a function

The answer is: False, the inverse of is not a function.

It's known that most of functions don't have an inverse function. Inverse function is known for being the result of inverting a one to one function, it means that for each y should be only one x. If the function is not a one to one function, it doesn't have an inverse that is a function

The given function is not a one to one function, let's prove it:

Let's evaluate two differentes values: 5 and -5

Evaluating 5

Evaluating -5

We have the same output for differents x values, so, the function is not a one to one function, meaning that its inverse is not a function.

Have a nice day!

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step-by-step explanation: