Is it possible for an odd function to have the interval 0 infinity) as its domain?

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, it is possible for an odd function to have the interval 0 to infinity as its domain.

Let f(x) = -x

f(-x)= -(-x)

     = x

and -f(x)= -(-x)

            = x

Clearly, f(-x) = -f(x)

Hence, f(x) = -x  is an odd function.

and clearly the domain of f(x) = -x is the set of all real numbers which also contains the interval (0,∞)

Hence, it is possible for an odd function to have the interval 0 to infinity as its domain.

62.5 paisa

step-by-step explanation:

4000*70 = 280000

280000-(2000*90) = 100000

4000-2400 = 1600

100000/1600 = 62.5

( give brainliest)