F(x) = {(1, 4), (2, 3), (5, 8), (4, 7)} is f-1(x) a function and why? a - yes, each element in the range has only one domain value. b - yes, each element in the domain has only one range value. c - there are only a limited number of ordered pairs and can’t be determined. d - we don’t know the original function and therefore can’t make the determination. i know as a fact that the answer is yes, i'm confused on how to interpret it. my guesses are that it's a.

You are correct.

You are given f(x) explicitly, meaning all points are listed.

You can see what the domain and range of f(x) are.

For the inverse function, f^-1(x), switch the domain and range of the original function, f(x). Now each y-coordinate is part of the domain of the inverse function. Since each y-coordinate of f(x), which becomes an x-coordinate of f^-1(x), appears only once, the inverse of function f is a function.

choice A

answer by yourhope:

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