subject
Mathematics, 21.08.2019 11:10 gracelong4326

Counterexamples john says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you
don’t have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide
both sides by a negative number. find an inequality that you can use
to disprove john’s statement. explain your thinking.

ansver
Answers: 1

Another question on Mathematics

question
Mathematics, 20.06.2019 18:04
Point e(−5, 3) and point d(−4, −3) are located on the grid. which measurement is closest to the distance between point e and point d in units? a) 6.1 units b) 6.3 units c) 6.5 units d) 6.7 units
Answers: 2
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 17:00
The table shows the webster family’s monthly expenses for the first three months of the year. they are $2,687.44, $2,613.09, and $2,808.64. what is the average monthly expenditure for all expenses?
Answers: 1
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 19:00
You and a friend went to the movies.you spent half your money on tickets. then you spent 1/4 of the money on popcorn, $2 on candy, and $3 on a soda. if you have $1 left, hiw much money did u take to the movies?
Answers: 1
question
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 20:00
Given: ∆mop p∆mop =12+4 3 m∠p = 90°, m∠m = 60° find: mp, mo
Answers: 1
You know the right answer?
Counterexamples john says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you
don’t have to reverse th...
Questions
question
History, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Business, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Mathematics, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Mathematics, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Computers and Technology, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Geography, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Mathematics, 01.12.2020 20:50
question
Mathematics, 01.12.2020 20:50
Questions on the website: 13722367