A Federal Covered Adviser registered with the SEC holds a meeting with its employees and verbally warns them about the prohibited practice of trading ahead of large customer orders that are likely to have a market impact. The firm has not yet included this prohibition in its policies and procedures manual, but intends to do so in the near future. Which statement is TRUE?A. There is no violation of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 "insider trading" rules because the employees participated in the meetingB. There is no violation of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 because the firm intends to include "trading ahead" restrictions in the next version of its policies and procedures manualC. The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 has been violated because the firm did not have written policies and procedures covering "front running" by its employeesD. There is no violation of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 because "front running" is not covered by the Act