Why was england's percentage of international trade greater at the turn of the twentieth century than it is now?

England at this time was at the height of its power, it was the leading global power, the birthplace of the Industrial revolution and it has a lot of overseas colonies. It has used its colonies to produce goods and traded it among its other colonies and other industrialized country. England was producing huge amount of goods that no other country can ever produce, it has a well developed steel industry and a massive producer of machinery which was both vital for the industrialization of its fellow European nations. 

Im pretty sure the answer is d.) is more densely populated.

Spanish conquistadors demanded labour from natives.