"the colonists believed that the power of government comes from the consent of the governed." explain the statement's meaning in your own words. do you think it's as true (or false) today as it was when the colonists and founders worked its ideas into the constitution? back up your opinion with examples. next, come back a couple days later to comment on one of your peers' post. do you agree or disagree with their statements? why?

I think what this means is basically that the colonists believed that the power the government held came from the people they governed, and with their consent and allowance. So without the people consenting to and with the government, the government's power grew smaller and smaller. This was exemplified in the case of the colonists breaking free of England and King George's rule and forming the United States when they felt they did not have enough representation and too high of taxes. Their voice was not taken into enough consideration by those that were governing them, and so the government's power over them lessened and lessened until they had no power at all. Of course, this isn't the case with all governments unfortunately. This question makes me think of dictatorships where the people gave no "consent" and had no say in how they were ruled even down to whether or not they voted, but still the government's power over them lingered until the government's eventual downfall, usually by intervention from another government or by death of the dictator. 

It developed as a reaction to the impact of european colonialism in africa on peoples of african descent. in the  mid-20th century, activists in africa adopted pan-africanism as a rallying cry for independence from colonial rule. some african pan-africanists sought to unite the continent as one independenthope it was useful